Jesus' use of the term "Son of Man" has confused a lot of people, but Jesus makes it clear in his statement to the Council that he wasn't using the term like Ezekiel, but rather a reference to Daniel 7:13, a messianic passage. See Mark 14:62.
Here in Revelation, the phrase is a description used of two different people in Daniel. In Daniel 7, it describes the Messiah receiving authority from the Ancient of Days. In Daniel 10:1-9, which is referenced frequently in the description of Jesus, it describes an archangel who struggled to visit Daniel. Both passages are used to describe Jesus.
What is this saying about Jesus, that Jesus is equivalent of an angel? It certainly is referring to Jesus as the Messiah, the Emperor of Israel, but it also makes clear that Jesus is a spirit-being, his nature being the spirit realm where the Father dwells.
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